I think the consensus seems to be exploitation is about choice :
if the girl enters the exchange as a equal and agrees terms, then that's not exploitative
however, if she has no power to negotiate or to say no to sex then it is exploitative
the
External Link/Members Only are illuminating (thanks daviemac)
I'm not a lawyer but it seems 'sex for rent' falls under 'causing prostitution for gain' where they can prove exploitation
but if she entered into the arrangement 'in accordance with her free will' (and no sign of exploitation) they can still prosecute you for 'controlling prostitution'
and that's what I don't get - if the girl doesn't have to do it and chooses to do it anyway - where the exploitation ?
we dont know the details of his ad or the case, but if he put up an ad offering accommodation for sex and girls responded you could argue they did so knowing exactly what the deal was cos he spelt it out in the ad so where is the exploitation ?
the counter argument might be if they were homeless that had no option but to respond, or sleep outdoors and so it is exploitative