The whole rape debate is a difficult one. Fair enough if a woman says no and the man does it anyway it is rape but when it comes to things like she said yes but only with a condom but he did not use one, is it rape? I have no idea. I know I would feel abused and probably feel as if I had been raped but I had agreed to sex although with a condom so it is difficult. It in my view should be sexual abuse or sexual abuse with intent to cause long term harm, maybe? Unless of course he has HIV then it should be Attempted Murder with further charges being brought if she contracts HIV. Just my opinion and I will upset any feminists but the word RAPE should only be used when a man has forced himself upon a woman against her will. Otherwise rape will not be taken seriously if it has more than one meaning. Rape should only be used when the woman has indicated she does not want to be involved, i.e being attacked (choice taken away) or date rape where she says no but he thinks she means yes.
Not paying a prossie can never be rape. She consented to sex with you. It is fraud end of. Hence she should get paid before the booking starts
I once booked a WG, paid her in advance, and she did not provide the services agreed upon. Breach of contract! Wilful deception!! Common fraud!!!
Since that incident occurred I feel dubious about girls who demand cash before they've even laid a finger on my trouser snake. The best girls invariably wait until the end of the appointment to collect what they've earned (perhaps with a small tip as appreciation).